I am responding to your assertion that the mother should have no say in it whatsoever if the father is willing and able to provide for all her care plus a cash bonus.
So I can take from that that you assume abortion is an acceptable solution to the issue.
I suppose it would have to be, since the alternative is that all pregnant women are forced to carry all pregnancies to term, regardless of anyone's wishes.
In that case, why does the mother have the right to demand child support in the case that she wants the child and the father doesn't?
Because the American legal system is f@$%ked up?
Actually, because we have no system to legally qualify or quantify "intent to create a child" or "intent to raise a child."
In the OP, BluePriest actually mentioned some kind of legally binding agreement. I would seriously be in favor of this -- something specifically enumerating each side's rights and responsibilities re: monetary payment, time spent, access to the child, degree of involvement in life decisions regarding the child, etc. (there's already some precedent for this kind of thing in divorce and family law, broken as it may be).
Edit: I'd say it should be in place by the 20th week of gestation or so (early enough to cover any survivable premature births). It'd probably be hard to make a prior (presexual?) agreement that covered ALL possible circumstances.