Refuting Zeru's most recent post...
"infinity" * A ≠ "infinity", because infinity is a concept and not a discrete number that is bound by the rules of algebra.
As a counter-example, assume "infinity1" is the number of elements in the set of all positive odd integers, i.e. "1, 3, 5, 7, ...", and "A" is the constant "2".
Now, let's assume "infinity2" is the number of elements in the set of all positive integers, i.e. "1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, ...".
"infinity1" * A ≠ "infinity1"
However
"infinity1" * A = "infinity2"
The fatal assumption you make in your argument is that knowledge can be measured by this unit called "facts" and consequently that the proposition "knowledge is infinite" is true if and only if the number of "facts" is infinite.
However, think about this:
It takes me exactly 24 hours to walk a distance of 60 km, for a total of 60km.
That means that it takes me 2 twelve-hour parts of 30 km, for a total of 60km.
And 3 eight-hour parts of 20 km, for a total of 60km.
And 4 six-hour parts of 10 km, for a total of 60km.
...
And an infinite number of infinitesimally short parts of infinitesimally small lengths, for a ... total time of 24 hours and a total length of 60km.
Although the number of parts may change, the total does not.
With your reasoning, our existence is infinite. Sure, we are existing at an infinite number of points on the line that is our life, but the time that we spend here, the thing that we actually want to measure, is a finite, discrete value.
As for my own answer, I raise Determinism: There can only one [knowledge] and, if that fails, Logical Positivism: We're just screwing up our English.